CodeWarrior1241
Active Member
I'm putting this in the C&R subforum because I've read posts from people here that have an outstanding knowledge of firearms history, and I wasn't sure if there was a better place on this in the forum... Here's what I want to understand better:
I've often seen the opinion repeated that while self loading battle rifles with detachable magazines were technically possible decades before they became common, brass in many armies rejected them. The arguments presented seemed to boil down to unsustainable ammunition usage in combat, and the undue expense of detachable magazine fabrication once magazine replacements per soldier were factored in.
Seems that by the 1930s mechanization of supply vehicles, etc. made it possible to sustain much larger ammo expenditure in the field than in previous decades, so armies the world over started adopting squad-level LMGs and often self loading rifles as well. We got the Garand going, for instance. However, many designs were pushed to have either a secondary clip loading abilit - German G41 designs, etc., or an en-bloc loading capability, like the Garand. Specifically for that rifle I've seen it said that the clips were engineered by John Garand because mags were considered to be too expensive to equip the entire infantry force with.
Then, during the war, all this changes. M1 carbines are issued with mags. Soviets, in a terrible crisis, losing men, industrial base, and relocating entire production lines under fire broadly adopt SMGs that are exclusively mag fed. Immediately post war no clip loaders are seriously entertained anywhere anymore. Again, the post war USSR standardizes on the Kalashnikov system at least by the early 1950s, and I doubt the production techniques available then were seriously further advanced than what existed in the late 1930s. We adopt the M14, same story.
Were people in the 1930s simply wrong about the costs involved? Was there a breakthrough that led to mag production becoming so much cheaper by 1943 or thereabouts? How could postwar USSR and postwar China, both tremendously war weary countries, able to re-equip the overwhelming majority of front line troops with mag fed riddles by the late 1950s if this was thought to be so difficult to do prior to WW2?
If someone could explain some of this that would be most excellent.
I've often seen the opinion repeated that while self loading battle rifles with detachable magazines were technically possible decades before they became common, brass in many armies rejected them. The arguments presented seemed to boil down to unsustainable ammunition usage in combat, and the undue expense of detachable magazine fabrication once magazine replacements per soldier were factored in.
Seems that by the 1930s mechanization of supply vehicles, etc. made it possible to sustain much larger ammo expenditure in the field than in previous decades, so armies the world over started adopting squad-level LMGs and often self loading rifles as well. We got the Garand going, for instance. However, many designs were pushed to have either a secondary clip loading abilit - German G41 designs, etc., or an en-bloc loading capability, like the Garand. Specifically for that rifle I've seen it said that the clips were engineered by John Garand because mags were considered to be too expensive to equip the entire infantry force with.
Then, during the war, all this changes. M1 carbines are issued with mags. Soviets, in a terrible crisis, losing men, industrial base, and relocating entire production lines under fire broadly adopt SMGs that are exclusively mag fed. Immediately post war no clip loaders are seriously entertained anywhere anymore. Again, the post war USSR standardizes on the Kalashnikov system at least by the early 1950s, and I doubt the production techniques available then were seriously further advanced than what existed in the late 1930s. We adopt the M14, same story.
Were people in the 1930s simply wrong about the costs involved? Was there a breakthrough that led to mag production becoming so much cheaper by 1943 or thereabouts? How could postwar USSR and postwar China, both tremendously war weary countries, able to re-equip the overwhelming majority of front line troops with mag fed riddles by the late 1950s if this was thought to be so difficult to do prior to WW2?
If someone could explain some of this that would be most excellent.