If I understand correctly, Bruen concludes that the 2nd Amendment must be read with it's words having the same meaning they had during the period the Amendment was passed. In the Second’s case, this was identified as being between the ratification of the 2nd (1791) and 14th (1868) Amendments.
Does that conclusion apply to the entire Constitution as well as it's other Amendments?
Does that conclusion apply to the entire Constitution as well as it's other Amendments?